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Titus Cunningham's avatar

Matteo, I am greatly sympathetic to your worries with regard to the apathy towards the Chalcedonian definition from modern Reformed. Your discussion on Calvin is interesting to me; I struggle to see why Calvin denies the orthodox Father's interpretation as though it conflicts with his interpretation. Calvin notes that Christ's healings manifest "a Divine power." Is not the Son's eternal generation the immense depth underlying the "truly divine" works? Calvin also says Jesus is trying to raise the Jews' eyes from Christ's human nature to his divine nature and, thus, to "look at God." He then notes that Christ is trying to affirm through his works that "there is no difference between him and his Father." The ground of this divine unity is the eternal generation of the Son. The Triune persons just are the unity of the divine essence; the persons are distinguished, not divided. Thus, why should this passage not simultaneously manifest the character of the Son's eternal generation and temporal mission? To me, it seems that there is a both/and here and not necessarily an either/or.

I also feel your concern for finding continuity with the tradition. However, the ground of this continuity with the tradition cannot be that the lovely Church Fathers "say so" or that Chalcedon "says so," Aquinas and Cyril "say so." We agree on this point, I am sure. However, in the spirit of a proper biblicism, your essay would have been strengthened with more extensive scriptural argumentation in favor of Cyril's interpretation of Psalm 2:7 and Aquinas and the Fathers' interpretation of John 5:19. Why do you think the above passages from Holy Scripture demand the use of the metaphysical concepts present in the Chalcedonian definition? Why should John 5:19 not provide an either/or with regard to Christ's natures and instead endorse the dynamic unity of the person attested to by Chalcedon? Why do you think the "day" in Psalm 2:7 is must be an "eternal," "timeless" day?

Lovely essay Matteo, thanks.

Jake Thompson's avatar

I love that you wrote on this after our conversation.

I, like Titus, am very sympathetic towards this concern. In our present context, Christological clarity and application in exegesis, teaching, and preaching seems to be an area where the Reformed need to “reform.” The historical-biblical paradigm is widely predominant and it often does neglect the Chalcedonian definition.

I also agree with Titus on his point about the “both/and” rather than the “this one/that one”. I think you can, on exegetical grounds, say, “on the one hand, John 5:19 pertains to the temporal mission of the Son, and yet the mission must be read according to the divine processions and relate back to eternal generation.”

We need the biblical-historical, I think, to maintain the balance against the high figurative-allegorical- metaphysical paradigm in the medievals. But we most definitely need that figurative -metaphysical hermeneutic to combat against a rigid (and honestly, insufficient and unsatisfying) biblical-historicism.

I think Psalm 2, John, or any other Christological passage can be read in this way.

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